RRB JE Important Questions 2026: Check Top MCQs for CBT 2 Exam Preparation
RRB JE CBT 2 2026 exam will be held on 2nd July for 2,588 vacancies. Candidates appearing for the exam can practice these important MCQs from the subjects of Physics & Chemistry, Computers, Environment, and Technical Skills.
Key Points
- RRB JE CBT 2 exam is officially scheduled for 2nd July 2026.
- This recruitment fills 2,588 vacancies for Junior Engineer and related posts.
- Jagran Josh offers 40 Important MCQs for CBT 2 exam preparation.
RRB JE CBT 2 Important Questions: RRB has officially announced that the JE CBT 2 exam is scheduled for 2nd July 2026. This recruitment fills a total of 2,588 vacancies for the posts of Junior Engineer, Depot Material Superintendent, and Chemical & Metallurgical Assistant. As per the exam pattern, CBT 2 has 150 questions of 150 marks with a duration of 120 minutes. Those candidates who qualified for the CBT 1 can prepare for the CBT 2 exam. To help aspirants, Jagran Josh has compiled a list of 40 Important MCQs that include questions from all topics, such as Physics & Chemistry, Computers, Environment, and branch-wise Technical Ability.
Important MCQs For RRB JE CBT 2 Exam 2026
As the examination is scheduled for 2 July, Candidates do not have much time left for the revision. We have provided the candidates with some of the most important MCQs from all these subjects to help them in their preparation. This CBT 2 exam includes Physics & Chemistry, Computers, Environment, General Awareness, and branch-wise Technical Abilities. Candidates are advised to practice these MCQs to revise key concepts, understand the exam pattern, and assess their preparation level before the exam.
Physics & Chemistry
Q1. The SI unit of force is:
(a) Joule
(b) Newton
(c) Pascal
(d) Watt
Answer: (b) Newton
Q2. Which of the following is a noble gas?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Argon
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Chlorine
Answer: (b) Argon
Q3. The process of conversion of a solid directly into a vapour is called:
(a) Evaporation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Condensation
(d) Distillation
Answer: (b) Sublimation
Q4. The pH value of pure water is:
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer: (c) 7
Q5. Which law states that pressure and volume of a gas are inversely proportional at constant temperature?
(a) Charles's Law
(b) Boyle's Law
(c) Newton's Law
(d) Ohm's Law
Answer: (b) Boyle's Law
Q6. The chemical formula of baking soda is:
(a) NaCl
(b) NaHCO₃
(c) CaCO₃
(d) Na₂CO₃
Answer: (b) NaHCO₃
Q7. The unit of electrical resistance is:
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Ohm
(d) Farad
Answer: (c) Ohm
Basics of Computers and Applications
Q8. Which device is used to convert digital signals into analog signals?
(a) Router
(b) Modem
(c) Switch
(d) Hub
Answer: (b) Modem
Q9. RAM stands for:
(a) Read Access Memory
(b) Random Access Memory
(c) Run Access Memory
(d) Read Allocated Memory
Answer: (b) Random Access Memory
Q10. Which of these is an operating system?
(a) MS Word
(b) Linux
(c) Excel
(d) Photoshop
Answer: (b) Linux
Q11. The full form of CPU is:
(a) Central Processing Unit
(b) Central Program Unit
(c) Computer Processing Unit
(d) Control Processing Unit
Answer: (a) Central Processing Unit
Q12. Which key is used to refresh a webpage?
(a) F2
(b) F5
(c) F8
(d) F10
Answer: (b) F5
Q13. Which of the following is an input device?
(a) Monitor
(b) Printer
(c) Scanner
(d) Speaker
Answer: (c) Scanner
Basics of Environment and Pollution Control
Q14. Which gas is mainly responsible for global warming?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Helium
Answer: (b) Carbon dioxide
Q15. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy of 1984 was caused by the leakage of which gas?
(a) Methyl Isocyanate
(b) Carbon Monoxide
(c) Sulphur Dioxide
(d) Ammonia
Answer: (a) Methyl Isocyanate
Q16. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Solar energy
(d) Natural gas
Answer: (c) Solar energy
Q17. The ozone layer protects the Earth from:
(a) Visible light
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) Infrared rays
(d) Radio waves
Answer: (b) Ultraviolet rays
General Awareness
Q18. The headquarters of Indian Railways is located in:
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) New Delhi
(d) Chennai
Answer: (c) New Delhi
Q19. Who is known as the "Father of Indian Railways"?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) Lord Wellesley
Answer: (a) Lord Dalhousie
Q20. Which Indian state has the largest railway network?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (b) Uttar Pradesh
Civil Engineering
Q21. The maximum size of aggregate used in reinforced cement concrete (RCC) work is generally:
(a) 10 mm
(b) 20 mm
(c) 40 mm
(d) 60 mm
Answer: (b) 20 mm
Q22. Which of the following bonds is used in brick masonry to provide maximum strength?
(a) Stretcher bond
(b) English bond
(c) Header bond
(d) Flemish bond
Answer: (b) English bond
Q23. The slump test is conducted to determine the:
(a) Strength of concrete
(b) Workability of concrete
(c) Setting time of cement
(d) Density of concrete
Answer: (b) Workability of concrete
Q24. The angle of repose of soil depends on:
(a) Moisture content
(b) Particle size and shape
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Answer: (c) Both a and b
Q25. Which surveying instrument is used to measure horizontal and vertical angles?
(a) Theodolite
(b) Plane table
(c) Dumpy level
(d) Chain
Answer: (a) Theodolite
Mechanical Engineering
Q26. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:
(a) Working substance
(b) Temperature of source and sink
(c) Pressure
(d) Volume
Answer: (b) Temperature of source and sink
Q27. Which type of stress is induced in a shaft under torsion?
(a) Tensile stress
(b) Compressive stress
(c) Shear stress
(d) Bending stress
Answer: (c) Shear stress
Q28. The ratio of actual mechanical advantage to ideal mechanical advantage of a machine is called:
(a) Velocity ratio
(b) Efficiency
(c) Load factor
(d) Friction factor
Answer: (b) Efficiency
Q29. In a four-stroke petrol engine, the power stroke occurs during:
(a) Suction
(b) Compression
(c) Expansion
(d) Exhaust
Answer: (c) Expansion
Q30. Which welding process uses a non-consumable tungsten electrode?
(a) MIG welding
(b) TIG welding
(c) Arc welding
(d) Spot welding
Answer: (b) TIG welding
Electrical Engineering
Q31. Ohm's Law gives the relationship between:
(a) Voltage, resistance, and power
(b) Voltage, current, and resistance
(c) Current, power, and frequency
(d) Resistance, frequency, and power
Answer: (b) Voltage, current, and resistance
Q32. The unit of electrical power is:
(a) Joule
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Ohm
Answer: (c) Watt
Q33. Which type of motor is commonly used in ceiling fans?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) DC series motor
(d) Universal motor
Answer: (a) Induction motor
Q34. The device used to step up or step down AC voltage is called a:
(a) Generator
(b) Transformer
(c) Rectifier
(d) Inverter
Answer: (b) Transformer
Q35. Which material is commonly used as an insulator in electrical cables?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) PVC
(d) Iron
Answer: (c) PVC
Electronics & CSE
Q36. Which gate gives output 1 only when all inputs are 1?
(a) OR gate
(b) AND gate
(c) NOR gate
(d) NAND gate
Answer: (b) AND gate
Q37. A diode allows current to flow in:
(a) Both directions
(b) One direction only
(c) No direction
(d) Alternating direction
Answer: (b) One direction only
Q38. Which memory is volatile in nature?
(a) ROM
(b) RAM
(c) Hard disk
(d) Pen drive**
Answer: (b) RAM
Q39. The basic building block of a digital circuit is:
(a) Transistor
(b) Logic gate
(c) Capacitor
(d) Resistor
Answer: (b) Logic gate
Q40. Which topology connects all devices to a single central cable?
(a) Star
(b) Ring
(c) Bus
(d) Mesh
Answer: (c) Bus
The candidates appearing in the RRB JE CBT 2 2026 examination can refer to these MCQs to revise important concepts from all the subjects before the examination. Quick practice of these questions is helpful in increasing speed and accuracy, and also boosts confidence in the exam. We hope all the candidates perform well in the RRB JE CBT 2 Examination.
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