Top 50 MCQs of CBSE Class 12 Physics Exam 2026 with Answers: Download PDF

The Top 50 MCQs of the CBSE Class 12 Physics Exam 2026 are carefully selected to help students strengthen conceptual clarity, improve accuracy, and score high in the upcoming board examination. The CBSE Class 12 Physics Exam is scheduled to be held on 20th February 2026. As per the latest exam pattern released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, multiple-choice questions (MCQs) continue to play a crucial role in the Physics (042) paper, specifically in Section A.

With the increasing focus on competency-based, assertion-reasoning, and application-oriented questions, practicing high-quality MCQs with answers is essential for mastering important topics like Electrostatics, Current Electricity, Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms and Nuclei, and Semiconductor Devices. These 50 most important MCQs are designed according to the latest CBSE syllabus for the 2025–26 academic session and follow the updated marking scheme.

CBSE Class 12 Physics: Exam Pattern & Marking Scheme

That table outlines the CBSE 12th Physics exam pattern:

CHECK: CBSE Class 12 Physics Last 10 Days Study Plan for Board Exam 2026

Top 50 MCQs of CBSE Class 12 Physics 

Q1. The ratio of voltage and electrical current in a closed circuit: 

(A) Decreases 

(B) Increases 

(C) Varies 

(D) Remains constant

Q2. The SI unit of electric field is:
(a) Volt/meter
(b) Newton
(c) Joule
(d) Ampere

Q3. Two point charges +q and –q separated by distance 2a constitute:
(a) Electric monopole
(b) Electric dipole
(c) Quadrupole
(d) None

Q4. The electric field inside a conductor is:
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) Depends on charge
(d) None

Q5. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l as shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the system is zero, then Q is equal to

(a) -q

(b) +q

(c) zero

(d) - q/2

Q6. In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance increases when:
(a) Plate area decreases
(b) Distance between plates increases
(c) Dielectric constant increases
(d) None of these

Q7. Ohm’s law is valid only when:
(a) Current is proportional to voltage
(b) Temperature remains constant
(c) Resistance remains constant
(d) All of these

Q8. The resistivity of a conductor depends on:
(a) Length
(b) Area of cross-section
(c) Nature of material
(d) Shape

Q9. The SI unit of resistivity is:
(a) Ohm
(b) Ohm meter
(c) Ohm⁻¹ meter⁻¹
(d) Coulomb

Q10. If the phasor diagram for a device connected to AC supply is as shown in the fig, then which of the following statements is true?

(A) When the frequency of the AC source is increased then the impedance of the device decreases. 

(B) This device behaves as conducting wire when connected across a DC source. 

(C) When the frequency of the AC source is decreased then the impedance of the device decreases. 

(D) D. This device stores energy in the form of magnetic potential energy.

Q11. The magnetic field at the centre of a current-carrying circular loop is directly proportional to:
(a) Radius of loop
(b) Current
(c) Area
(d) Square of radius

Q12. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:
(a) Weber
(b) Tesla
(c) Henry
(d) Joule

Q13. A charged particle moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field will follow:
(a) Linear path
(b) Circular path
(c) Parabolic path
(d) Helical path

Q14. The device based on Fleming’s left-hand rule is:
(a) Galvanometer
(b) Motor
(c) Ammeter
(d) Voltmeter

Q15. A glass prism has internal angles of 45°, 45° and 90°. The glass has a critical angle of 45°. Which of the following ray diagrams depicts the possible path of light through the prism?

Q16. The SI unit of inductance is:
(a) Henry
(b) Tesla
(c) Weber
(d) Joule

Q17. The dimensional formula of inductance is:
(a) [ML²T⁻²A⁻²]
(b) [ML²T⁻²A⁻¹]
(c) [M⁰L²T⁻²A⁻²]
(d) [MLT⁻²A⁻²]

Q18. The average value of AC current over one complete cycle is:
(a) Zero
(b) Maximum
(c) Half of maximum
(d) None

Q19. The power factor of a pure capacitor is:
(a) Zero
(b) One
(c) Greater than one
(d) Infinity

Q20. Which of the following transitions corresponds to the emission of the radiation of the maximum wavelength?

(A) I 

(B) III 

(C) IV 

(D) VI

Q21. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest frequency?
(a) Radio waves
(b) Gamma rays
(c) X-rays
(d) Ultraviolet rays

Q22. The speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum is:
(a) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
(b) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
(c) 3 × 10⁵ m/s
(d) 3 × 10¹⁰ m/s

Q23. The electromagnetic waves are:
(a) Longitudinal
(b) Transverse
(c) Stationary
(d) None

Q24. The SI unit of frequency is:
(a) Hertz
(b) Tesla
(c) Newton
(d) Joule

Q25. When we move magnetic compass from point P to Q then which of the following statement is true 

(A) The deflection of the magnetic needle at P and Q will be in the same direction. 

(B) The deflection of the magnetic needle at P and Q will be in the opposite directions. 

(C) The deflection of the magnetic needle at P and Q will be perpendicular to each other. 

(D) The deflection of the magnetic needle at P and Q will be inclined at 45o with respect to each other.

Q26. Power of lens is measured in:
(a) Dioptre
(b) Joule
(c) Watt
(d) Weber

Q27. The focal length of a plane mirror is:
(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) Unity
(d) Depends on distance

Q28. The speed of light is maximum in:
(a) Glass
(b) Diamond
(c) Air
(d) Water

Q29. The angle of incidence for which angle of refraction is 90° is called:
(a) Angle of deviation
(b) Critical angle
(c) Brewster angle
(d) None

Q30.

Q31. Polarization of light proves that light is:
(a) Longitudinal
(b) Transverse
(c) Both
(d) None

Q32. In photoelectric effect, the number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to:
(a) Frequency of light
(b) Intensity of light
(c) Wavelength
(d) Threshold frequency

Q33. The photoelectric effect is explained by:
(a) Wave theory
(b) Quantum theory
(c) Electromagnetic theory
(d) Newton’s laws

Q34. Work function is measured in:
(a) Joule
(b) Electron volt
(c) Weber
(d) Henry

Q35. Assertion: Work done in moving a change around a closed path in an electric field is always zero. 

Reason: Electrostatic force is a conservative force. 

(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. 

(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. 

(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 

(D) Assertion is false but Reason is true

Q36. In Bohr’s model, electrons revolve in:
(a) Continuous orbits
(b) Stationary orbits
(c) Random orbits
(d) Spiral paths

Q37. The energy of an electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is:
(a) –13.6 eV
(b) –3.4 eV
(c) –1.51 eV
(d) –0.85 eV

Q38. De Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by:
(a) h/p
(b) p/h
(c) hν
(d) h/m

Q39. The uncertainty principle was proposed by:
(a) Einstein
(b) Heisenberg
(c) Planck
(d) Bohr

Q40.

The water surrounding the Eel completes a circuit between the head and its tail. If the water surrounding it has a resistance of 500 Q, the current an Eel can produce in water is about 

(A) 1.5 A 

(B) 3.0 A 

(C) 30 A 

(D) 15 A

Q41. Assertion: If a proton and electron are moving with same velocity, then the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave associated with the electron is longer than that associated with the proton. Reason: The wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with a moving particle is inversely proportional to its mass. 

(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. 

(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. 

(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 

(D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Q42. The SI unit of radioactivity is:
(a) Curie
(b) Rutherford
(c) Becquerel
(d) Tesla

Q43. Nuclear fission is the:
(a) Splitting of a heavy nucleus
(b) Joining of light nuclei
(c) Decay of nucleus
(d) None

Q44. Assertion: Diamagnetic substances exhibit magnetism. 

Reason: Diamagnetic materials do not have permanent magnetic dipole moments. 

(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. 

(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. 

(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 

(D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Q45. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for:
(a) Uranium
(b) Iron
(c) Plutonium
(d) Thorium

Q46. The SI unit of power is:
(a) Watt
(b) Joule
(c) Newton
(d) Ampere

Q47. A body is said to be in equilibrium when:
(a) Net force = 0
(b) Net torque = 0
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None

Q48. Assertion: The photoelectrons produced by a monochromatic light beam incident on a metal surface, have a spread in their kinetic energies. 

Reason: The work function of the metal varies as a function of depth from the surface. 

(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. 

(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. 

(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 

(D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Q49. A projectile has maximum range when angle of projection is:
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°

Q50. Work done is said to be positive when:
(a) Force and displacement are opposite
(b) Force is perpendicular to displacement
(c) Force and displacement are in same direction
(d) None

Answer Key for CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQs 

CBSE 12th Physics Exam Pattern 2026: Typology of Questions

Also Check:

CBSE Class 12 Physics Syllabus 2026

CBSE Class 12 Physics Exam Pattern 2026

CBSE Class 12 Sample Paper: Physics