UPSC Prelims 2026 Exam Analysis Live: Shift 2 Ends; Check Difficulty Level and Good Attempts Here

Q. Which one of the following is the first Plan 3 Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project

(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

(c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Correct Answer: (c)

Q. Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

(a) It is the largest desert lake in the world.

(b) The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.

(c) The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.

Correct Answer: (a) & (c)

Q. At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation".

Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by  FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct?

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Correct Answer: (b)

Q. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

(a) They acted as army fortresses.

(b) They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.

(c) They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.

(d) They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Correct Answer: (c)

Q. Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

(a) It is an epiphytic orchid.

(b) The species is endemic to North-east India.

(c) It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Correct Answer: (a) & (c)

Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:

(a) The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

(b) The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.

(c) Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

(1) Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.

(2) Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.

(3) Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Correct Answer: (1) & (2)

The UPSC Prelims GS paper was seem to be loaded with history questions which were not starightforward and required a lot of in-depth knowledge about the subject. The questions were asked from topics such as:

• Jainism & Buddhism
• Nagara-style Architecture
• Modern History, and other parts

Q. Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

(a) Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity

(b) Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills

(c) Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Correct Answer: (a) & (b)

Q. With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.

(2) It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.

(3) Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Correct Answer: (1) & (2)

Q. Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a) Ecuador

(b) Peru

(c) Bolivia

(d) Colombia

Correct Answer: (d)

Q. Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:

(a) There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.

(b) Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.

(c) There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

(1) Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.

(2) Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.

(3) Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Correct Answer: (1) & (2)

Q. Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India :

(1) The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596).

(2) In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.

(3) The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Correct Answer: (1), (2), & (3)

Q. The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

(a) A joyous folk dance

(b) Buddha in a meditative pose

(c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha

(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Correct Answer: (a)

Q. Consider the following statements:

(1) Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.

(2) The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

(a) Emergence of urban life

(b) Transition to money economy

Correct Answer: (b)

Q. Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

(1) Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami

(2) Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole

(3) Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh

(4) Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Correct Answer: (2) & (3)

Q. Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

(a) Deva (gods)

(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

(c) Manushya (humans)

(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Correct Answer: (b)

The UPSC Prelims CSAT paper has been concluded at 04:30 pm. The paper was started at 02:30 pm.  

The candidates are required to secure 33% marks in the CSAT paper. This means out of 200, the candidates must at least obtain 66 marks.

The UPSC Prelims CSAT paper is going to end soon at 04:30 pm. The exam was started at 02:30 pm. With the GS paper being a little difficult this time, the candidates who are participating in the CSAT exam will be in a tough position to secure a decent score.

The UPSC Prelims consists of the GS paper, in which the candidates are required to obtain the equal to or more than the cut off marks in order to become eligible for the next stage of the selection process, which is Mains written examination.

Check UPSC Prelims Expected Cut Off Marks 2026 Here

The CSAT paper also includes the provision for negative marking. There will be negative marking of 1/3rd. Each incorrect response will fetch 1/3rd ngative marking.

The CSAT paper includes the following subjects:

• Logical Reasoning
• Reading Comprehension
• Basic Numeracy
• Quantitative Aptitude

The UPSC Prelims consists of GS and CSAT. CSAT exam pattern includes 80 multiple choice questions (MCQs), where each question carries +2.5 marks. There is also provision for negative marking. Candidates have only 2 hours to attempt these questions.

The UPSC Prelims CSAT paper was started at 02:30 pm. The exam will conclude at 04:30 pm. The Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) consists of 80 MCQs.

UPSC Prelims CSAT paper is going to be held in the second shift which is going to start at 02:30 pm. The CSAT paper will conclude at 04:30 pm and is of 2 hours duration. Candidates should enter the examination hall in time.

Candidates who have appeared for the UPSC Prelims GS paper 1 must also appear for the CSAT in order to be considered eligible for the selection process. The candidates are required to appear in both the papers to get shortlisted for the Mains examination.

Q. The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness

(b) Providing support to Indian importers

(c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India

(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Correct Answer: (a)

Q. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a) Nat Bhairavi

(b) Kamavardhini

(c) Hanumatodi

(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Correct Answer: (d)

Q. In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?

(a) Rigveda

(b) Atharvaveda

(c) Ashtadhyayi

(d) Arthashastra

Correct Answer: (a)

Q. With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.

(2) Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.

(3) Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Correct Answer: (1) & (2) only

Q. Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana

(b) Gwalior Gharana

(c) Patiala Gharana

(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Correct Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Q. Consider the following assertion:

The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

(1) Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.

(2) Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.

(3) Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Correct Answer: All (1), (2), & (3)

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

(1) The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.

(2) A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.

(3) The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Correct Answer: (2) & (3)

Q. Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

(1) Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.

(2) The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.

(3) The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.

(4) The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Correct Answer: (1) & (4)

Q. Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

(1) Vitasta : Chenab

(2) Asikni  : Jhelum

(3) Parushni : Ravi

(4) Yavyavati : Beas

Correct Answer: Only (3)

Q. Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

(1) Senguttuvan: Chera

(2) Udiyanjeral : Chola

(3) Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Correct Answer: (2) Udiyanjeral was an early historical king of the Chera dynasty, not the Chola dynasty.

Q. Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

(a) It was located in the lower Krishna valley.

(b) In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.

(c) The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Correct Answer: (a) & (c)

Q. What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha

(b) The Buddha's First Sermon

(c) The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana

(d) The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana

Correct Answer: (A)

The candidates who are preparing for the UPSC Civil Services Examination can download the GS Paper 1 pdf from the direct link provided here.

Download UPSC GS Question Paper 2026

The UPSC paper 1 was concluded at 11:30 am and the candidates are now out of the examination halls. There is a tensed environment surfacing which reflects the nature of the exam. Some candidates seems positive while some seems to be furious.

The question paper for the UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1 will be provided here soon. The candidates who are preparing for the upcoming UPSC CSE exams can stay tuned to this blog to get the question paper pdf.

The difficulty level of the UPSC GS Paper 1 seems to be of moderate level as per the initial feedback obtained from the candidates who have appeared for the prelims exam.

As per the initial feedback from the candidates, it seems that the UPSC GS paper 1 was of moderate difficulty level with some questions being too lengthy and others can be solved easily.

The UPSC Prelims GS paper 1 has been concluded now at 11:30 am. The candidates are coming out of the examination halls and shortly we will share the feedback from the candidates regarding the difficulty level of the paper.

The difficulty level of any paper indicates how much cut off can be expected by the candidates. If the level of the paper is easy, then the cut off will remain higher and if the level of the paper remains moderate to difficult, then the candidates can expect slightly lower cut off.

In a while, the UPSC Prelims GS paper 1 will be concluded and the candidates will come out of the examination halls. The diificulty level of the GS Paper 1 will be initially shared based on the feedback from the candidates.

The UPSC GS Paper 1 which started at 09:30 am is about to conclude at 11:30 am. All the candidates who have participated in the Paper 1 will come out of the examination hall in a while and will share their fedback about the paper.

Section 163 of the Indian Civil Services Code (BNSS), 2023 has been imposed within a radius of 100 metres around the examination centres for the Preliminary examination being conducted on 24 May 2026. The restriction will be in place till 08:00 pm tonight.

The UPSC CSE Preliminary examination is being conducted today in two shifts. The morning shift invloves the conduct of General Studies paper which was started at 09:30 am and is going to concude at 11:30 am.

The UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1 includes the following subjects:

• Indian Polity
• Indian History and Art & Culture
• Indian Economy
• India & World Geography
• Current Affairs
• Some miscellaneous topics

The General Studies paper in the UPSC Prelims consists of a total of 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries +2 marks and there will also be a provision for negative marking of 1/3rd. The candidats will get 2 hours time to solve these 100 questions.

The UPSC Prelims includes two papers- GS and CSAT. The General Studies (GS) paper will be conducted in Shift 1 from 09:30 am to 11:30 am.

The shift 1 will be held between 09:30 am to 11:30 am, i.e. two hours duration. The General Studies paper which is going to be conducted in the first shift is of 2 hours duration.

The UPSC Prelims Paper 1, which is the General Studies paper, is going to be held between 09:30 am to 11:30 am. The candidates who are apopearing for the examination will only be allowed entry in the examination hall till 09:20 am. No entry later than that will be allowed.